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Posted by Luis Hamburgh on September 14, 2001 00:57:30 UTC

Hello Harv,

I have used ‘contingent’ to mean what is also referred to as “logically indeterminate.” By virtue of the fact that we have no set theory without paradox, set theory itself is ‘logically indeterminate,’ or as I prefer, contingent. That is, it can be shown to be true, and it can be shown to be false. Its very own deductive process produces these paradoxes.

Nothing *necessary* can be contingent (logically indeterminate), so I see a logical fallacy in the argument that maths is prescriptive.

Mathematics is descriptive. Yes, set theory is almost always true, but *prescriptive* phenomena do not have the luxury of proving true “almost” always.

I’ll try to keep my terms current.

Peace out :)

-LH

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