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The Former Soviet Union & Commonsense

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Posted by Mohammad Isa Mirsiam on December 5, 2001 19:40:39 UTC

Supply and demand in the U.S.A. is governed by the rule of law. Perhaps the rule(s) of law are not installed well in Russia. Could this be the case? (I.E. Russia seems not to be willing to enforce the rule(s) of law)

Can we agree that in Russia commonsense may have diminished to an all time low level? (At least where the sales of potential weapons, as you have described, are concerned!?)

If the religious doctrines were not to have been suppressed in the former Soviet Union (or in any terrorist infested country) would you be comfortable in agreeing that perhaps the rules of law may have made a difference?


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