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Posted by Mark on November 8, 2001 20:29:04 UTC

Because I can't get you to realize that we must FIRST differentiate between what it means to "exist" (or "1", or "+", or "yes", etc.) or "not exist" (or "0", or "-", or "no", etc.)

However by differentiating between "1" and "0" we must first refer to fundamental relationship between the two. Since everything refers to yet deeper underlying relationship, then so too does existence/non-existence refer to the meaning (or fundamental "defintion") of "existence".

Without first defining "existence", then how the heck do we know what is the difference of "not exist". If we don't differentiate between the two words (by refering to more fundamental definition of the word), then "1" vs. "0" bears no significance to logic. For all practical purposes... they can be referred to as having the same meaning until we define the two (not a very reliable foundation for a formal system).

In a nut shell... if you don't first define "exist" then you cannot derrive consequences of "existence".
Now I ask you... to what does "existence" refer?

If you give me an answer for that last question... then you must also tell me to what does your answer refer. We could play this game all day (or for the rest of our lives)... or you could just admit that you don't have the answer and therefore origin of logic is mystery (GOD?).

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