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Posted by Mark on September 3, 2001 03:39:27 UTC

I never did fully understand this fascinating theorem, however I failed to encompass the implications I did understand. I simply forgot too. Thanx for the post....

By the way.....since you brought it up....
Can I correctly infer from this theorem, that the potential amount of knowledge to be gained from mathematics and axioms stands to be infinite? Since there will always remain a question that cannot be answered within the means of any current system, doesn't it follow that we will always have questions to ask and have matter how advanced our logical system?
Then in this case the potential for mathematics is infinitely reaching and impossible to ever fully comprehend....correct?
Pehaps the same applies to physics.......we may simply never have a GUT (Grand Unified Field Theory) the basis for TOE (The Theory of Everything). Such universal equations and theories may simply be beyond the capabilities of our logic system. We may never have a theory explaining the physics of a blackhole's singularity, or what came before the big bang. Then again we could......but maybe there will always be an unanswered physics question; always a yet to be discovered physics equation.

If as I've said before is correct.....If the universe and mathematics really do go hand in hand and co-exist independantly; and they are actualy complimentary phyisical and mental representations of the same fundamental basis.......then maybe Goedel's theorem can equaly apply to both. Then mathematics is infinite and can never be fully comprehended, as would be our universe.

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