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Posted by Harvey on September 24, 2003 01:58:02 UTC

I always thought of Godel's theorem as a kind of determinancy, except that the theorems are not determined by the axioms of the system. This is because there always semms to exist a more general system in which the theorems of the more specific system are determined.

Richard, please explain what you mean here by saying that theorems are not determined by the axioms of the system. This is not my understanding of Gödel.

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