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|Re: Inversely Proportional, Not Proportional.
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Posted by nåte on February 6, 2000 09:35:01 UTC
: : sound absurd?
: : it should.
: : How does One arrive that a quantum event is plausible when the time : : interval is 0, and thus the probability and uncertainty of such an event : : occuring is 0?
: : It always has amazed me that the popular speculation of scientists, : : when confronted with BB causalty, systematically assume BB cosmology : : a result of a "quantum fluctuation".
: : Do we not forget that the uncertainty of quantum mechanics is directly : : proportional to the time interval allowed for the event; thus arriving : : at a probability of such an event occuring?
: : In short... No time = 0 probability.
: : ZC: : DE ~ h/DT
: Even if the time interval between events went to zero, this would imply that the energy available for the production of matter in the universe diverged, not that the probability of the occurrence went to zero.
If T=0, this would require E=infinite for a quantum event to be plausable; which personally I dispise the use of 'actual' infinities for solutions.
Likewise, to maintain the probability of a QE ocurring if E=0, would require T=infinite, which is logically impossible to have time exist without a beginning.
But, my assertion above was with the presupposition of absolute nothingness. I'm not talking about Hawking's "no boundary", ZPE in the vacuum, and a quantum event occuring in imaginary time, blah blah blah.... rather, absolute nothingness.
You might suggest that "absolute nothingness" doesn't exist, but I would pose the question then why is there something rather than nothing? Given the hypothetical situation that ZPE in the vacuum was there "prior" to T=0, doesn't that just beg the question?
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