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Wrong Again.

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Posted by Alexander on September 11, 2001 01:31:46 UTC

1) Something material exists for no reasons which we call 'stuff'.

Existense A) does NOT require object to be material. It can be a rule, for example, or a space, or an energy level.

B) "for no reason" or "for certain reason" is not required yet also for having math.

Nor humans/aliens are required to label 1/0 existing/nonexisting objects, or describe their properties.

As soon as any object exists, by its own existence it is in "1" state versus "0" state if it does not exist. That is where math starts - and completely independent from humans/aliens and their definitions. That is what we call math - logic of existense/non-existense. That is why it is universal and is the same for humans, aliens, or no one. Pithagorean theorem is valid with or without humans. Universe is just a big set of Pithagorean theorems where all objects are mathematical (=logical) consequenses of existence/non existence plus (also mathematical) invariances (symmetries) of some mathematical objects (space, time, etc). Why invariance of space, but not of entropy - not clear yet, but as always in the past likely to originate mathematically from more fundamental mathematical object like supersymmetry or false vacuum.

So, just the fact of existence of something requires it to be mathematical (obey math). That is why universe is mathematical "all the way down", without supreme being declaring "Let there be 0 and let there be 1". No need. Already there. (Zero - even before anything exists at all.)

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