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Philosophy Is The Weak Link Preventing Understand Nature.

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Posted by Alexander on April 17, 2001 21:30:26 UTC

So, why is the Pithagor theorem (a^2+b^2=c^2) the same for in Egiptian civilization, Greek civilization, Arab civilization, and in European civilization?

And why hydrogen atom is the solution of Shredinger equation here, on Earth and on any distant galaxy (as we see in telescop, hydrogen is the same there regardless possibly different math notation someone else uses to write the equation and its solution in that galaxy).

The cut portion of the text was: At v much less than c Einstein equations become Newton equations, and Lorentz transformation become Galilean (classic)transformations, so all classic mechanics is perfectly valid as a part of relativity theory. It was valid before Einstein, and is valid after. That is why nothing changed in textbooks about mechanics (since Newton found mathematical laws of it) - we still use extremely accurate Newtonian physics all over in engineering, measurements, space exploration, science, everyday life, etc. And it can not be changed, because it has nothing to do with humans. F=ma is valid in any civilization at any time, same as the Pithagor theorem I mentioned above is valid in Egipt, Greece, Bagdad and in West Europe in all different notations people came up with.

So, why is Pithagor theorem valid in all of the above listed civilizations (Egyptian, etc)?

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