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Which God Are You Referring To?

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Posted by Hilbert Space on November 2, 2004 02:12:13 UTC

You said: "Remember He feels every ones hurt so if we have offended anyone we have hurt Him personally."

* * * * * * *

I found your statement interesting, because the Bible said: "But God will shatter the heads of his enemies..."
Psalms 68:21

Funny how an omniscient creator would bring into existence his own enemies, and then murder them. If all humans are God's creation (His "children"), and God is all-knowing, why would this happen? Is He truly benevolent and omniscient, but only some of the time?

If you only read John, James, Psalms etc. then I would understand how you might arrive at your conclusion that the biblical God is a loving and sensitive deity that as you say, "feels everyone's hurt". For example, in 1 Chronicles 16:34 we read the following: "For his mercy endureth forever."
I won't dispute the fact that the bible is peppered with talk of the Lord's great love and mercy.

The problem arises when the reader attempts to reconcile this benevolent God with this rather different God:

Jeremiah 13:14 "And I will dash them one against another, even the fathers and the sons together, saith the Lord: I will not pity, nor spare, nor have mercy, but destroy them."

I Samuel 15:3 "Now go and strike Amalek, and utterly destroy all that they have, and don't spare them; but kill both man and woman, infant and suckling..."

Numbers 31:17 "Now therefore, kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman who has known man by lying with him. But all the young girls who have not known man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves."

I Samuel 6:19 "And the people lamented because the Lord had smitten many of the people with a great slaughter."

Don't worry about responding to my other points Duane. Since you're a biblical literalist who takes the written text as the Truth -- the inspired word of God Himself -- I'd much rather hear your explanation as to how a supposedly all-knowing and omnibenevolent creator could also be so full of vengeance against the very people that He created. I presume that the human flaws that inspired such violent wrath were also created by God?

* * * * * * *

Since we're on the topic of biblical literalism, please reconcile this God:

Exodus 33:11 "And the Lord spake to Moses face to face, as a man speaketh to his friend."

With this God:

Exodus 33:20 "And he said, Thou canst not see my face; for there shall no man see me and live."

This God:

Deuteronomy 19:21 "Life shall go for life, an eye for an eye..."

Leviticus 19:19 "And if a man cause a blemish in his neighbor, as he hath done, so shall it be done to him: breach for breach, eye for eye."

With this God:

Matthew 5:38 "...whoever shall strike you on your right cheek, turn the other to him also."

If you respond by saying that the former was the word of God and the latter was the word of Jesus, then please reconcile these two passages:

John 10:30 "I and my Father are one." (Said by Jesus)

John 14:28 "I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I." (Said by Jesus)

Which is correct?

Whether in cogent reasoning or formal logic, the minimum prerequisite for an argument to be considered seriously is that it at least be internally consistent. Otherwise it's deemed a fallacy.
It seems to me that the bible, IF taken as literal truth, fails that minimum standard.

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