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RE: Quiet Days
Forum List | Follow Ups | Post Message | Back to Thread Topics | In Response To Posted by Infinidi on May 23, 2000 02:36:21 UTC |
An quantum mechanical experiment conducted in the recent past shows the violation of Bell`s Inequality Theorem. Why? Is our understanding of logic at the quantum level incomplete? Or is it because ultimately, the observer and the observed are one? Or is it because reality is essentially nonlocal? Or all three of the above?
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