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Posted by Harvey on August 2, 2003 03:28:35 UTC

The point I am trying to make (as I am sure you are wondering about right now) is this, that "perfection" (mathematically defined) is a human invention, nowhere found in nature, and superseeded mathematics. Therefore, mathematics is based on a human invention, and is therefore too a human invention.

How do you respond to Eugene Wigner's 1960 argument about the 'unreasonable effectiveness of mathematics' in physics?

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