HOWEVER, when you solve from the volume,
you integrate pi/x from 1 to infinity,
yielding pi times the log of infinity,
which is infinite.

WHEREAS, when you solve from the surface area,
you integrate 2*pi/x^^2 from 1 to infinity,
yielding 2*pi/x from infinity to one,
which equals 2*pi.

The surface area is finite and the volume is infinite, just the opposite of what you claim Prof. Nelson got.
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Perhaps if there is anyone else who knows calculus, he or she couls examine my math. DoctorDick should be able to do the math.

So since Paul is so scathing in his derision of me, I expect that Doctordick is obligated to either substantiate my math or point out the errors.

Yanniru

• Here Are Two Math Mistakes And One English Mistake - pmartin - June 1, 2003 - 00:22 UTC
  • My apologies - yanniru - June 1, 2003 - 02:28 UTC