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Symetrical Collapse

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Posted by Mark on August 13, 2001 18:16:05 UTC

Any accelerating mass will emit gravitational waves as a result of its undergoing an inertial frame of reference shift. This statement is analogous to its counterpart in electromagnetic theory, namely, any electricly charged particle will emit electromagnetic radiation when accelerated.

My question is: Why is it nescesary for a gravitational collapse to occur asymetricly in order for these gravitational waves to be emmited and detectable. If a star becomes a blackhole in a symetrical, (i.e. spherical) collapse, no gravitons may be detectable as a result. But mass was accelerated none the less.....Can anybody explain why? Is it because although mass was localy accelerated toward the center of mass within the system from all directions, the net acceleration of the entire star is zero.......and hence the waves destructively interfere before they ever rech an outside observer?

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