Back to Home

Blackholes Forum Message

Forums: Atm · Astrophotography · Blackholes · Blackholes2 · CCD · Celestron · Domes · Education
Eyepieces · Meade · Misc. · God and Science · SETI · Software · UFO · XEphem
RSS Button

Home | Discussion Forums | Blackholes I | Post
Login

Be the first pioneers to continue the Astronomy Discussions at our new Astronomy meeting place...
The Space and Astronomy Agora
Symetrical Collapse

Forum List | Follow Ups | Post Message | Back to Thread Topics
Posted by Mark on August 13, 2001 18:16:05 UTC

Any accelerating mass will emit gravitational waves as a result of its undergoing an inertial frame of reference shift. This statement is analogous to its counterpart in electromagnetic theory, namely, any electricly charged particle will emit electromagnetic radiation when accelerated.

My question is: Why is it nescesary for a gravitational collapse to occur asymetricly in order for these gravitational waves to be emmited and detectable. If a star becomes a blackhole in a symetrical, (i.e. spherical) collapse, no gravitons may be detectable as a result. But mass was accelerated none the less.....Can anybody explain why? Is it because although mass was localy accelerated toward the center of mass within the system from all directions, the net acceleration of the entire star is zero.......and hence the waves destructively interfere before they ever rech an outside observer?

Follow Ups:

Login to Post
Additional Information
Google
 
Web www.astronomy.net
DayNightLine
About Astronomy Net | Advertise on Astronomy Net | Contact & Comments | Privacy Policy
Unless otherwise specified, web site content Copyright 1994-2018 John Huggins All Rights Reserved
Forum posts are Copyright their authors as specified in the heading above the post.
"dbHTML," "AstroGuide," "ASTRONOMY.NET" & "VA.NET"
are trademarks of John Huggins