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No So- We Have Covered That

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Posted by Richard Ruquist on October 14, 2003 23:15:43 UTC

In John when Jesus is speaking he referes to himself as the son of man. But then when John is writing, he refers to Jeusu as the son of God.

Here is the scripture:

John 3.

10] Jesus answered him, "Are you a teacher of Israel, and yet you do not understand this?
[11] Truly, truly, I say to you, we speak of what we know, and bear witness to what we have seen; but you do not receive our testimony.
[12] If I have told you earthly things and you do not believe, how can you believe if I tell you heavenly things?
[13] No one has ascended into heaven but he who descended from heaven, the Son of man.
[14] And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, so must the Son of man be lifted up,
[15] that whoever believes in him may have eternal life."
[16]
For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.


[17] For God sent the Son into the world, not to condemn the world, but that the world might be saved through him.
[18] He who believes in him is not condemned; he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God.

-----------------

John takes over in verse 16. Previously, Jesus referred to himself as the son of man. Did he perhaps mean the son of Joseph?

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